[identity profile] freakytigger.livejournal.com posting in [community profile] poptimists
Something I said on the Other Place w.r.t. this BBC article:

If you look at the lists of #1 UK albums it's really only from 1964 that youth-targeted music dominates (and even then the Sound of Music OST is a massive seller in 66-67). I'd guess that listening to and socially enjoying popular music has been primarily an all-ages activity for almost all British history, barring maybe 40 years in the late 20th century. Which we happened to grow up in, so we think this trend is odd.

Is this true, or fair, or significant?

Re: TRUE BUT ALSO MISLEADING SIMPLIFIED

Date: 2006-04-20 03:48 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] marnameow.livejournal.com
That's a bit of a class issue, too - you had to have something to make music on (piano) and the education to read sheet music.

Re: TRUE BUT ALSO MISLEADING SIMPLIFIED

Date: 2006-04-20 03:51 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] spittake.livejournal.com
Was the ability to read music more common 100 years ago than now? It feels like it was, but I don't know.

Re: TRUE BUT ALSO MISLEADING SIMPLIFIED

Date: 2006-04-20 03:55 pm (UTC)
From: [identity profile] marnameow.livejournal.com
I would guess that it was in the middle/upper classes, at least among girls. Piano plying was one of the basic accomplishments you picked up to help you pick up a husband. Less common in boys/men, I would guess - music wasn't as important as Latin, there.

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